France manager Didier Deschamps has selected Chelsea’s Christopher Nkunku for the first time since September 2022.
According to L’Equipe, the 26-year-old is expected to start for Les Bleus against Israel later today.
The forward joined Chelsea from RB Leipzig in June 2023 and finished his debut season with three goals from 516 minutes from 14 matches. He struggled with multiple injuries which forced him to spend more time away from the pitch.
Nkunku suffered a knee injury in August 2023, which kept him out of action for more than four months. He sustained a hip injury in January and then picked up a hamstring injury in February and that saw him spend over two months in the treatment room.
The former Leipzig man has been fit for Chelsea this season, scoring seven goals from 11 matches in all competitions.
Enzo Maresca has mainly used him as a ‘joker’, meaning a substitute. The report claims he’s likely to have a similar role with the national team as he’s not a key player for Deschamps.
L’Equipe add Nkunku seems to be ‘moving away from this bad luck’ of injuries, which has made him stronger today.
“I went through some very difficult stages, yes. I’ve learnt about my body, but also about patience and resilience. Today, I’m stronger psychologically. In sporting terms, I knew that if I was in good health, I wouldn’t have any problems,” he said, quoted by L’Equipe.
The Frenchman would still need to improve in order to start for Chelsea in the Premier League.
